Determining the ideals of a quotient ring Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast? ...

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Determining the ideals of a quotient ring



Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar ManaraShort question on notation of ideals in a quotient ring.Image of a Prime ideals in quotient ringThe number of ideals in the quotient ring $mathbb R[x]/langle x^2-3x+2 rangle$Ideals of the quotient ring of AForm of maximal ideals in an algebraicaly closed polynomial ringExistence of minimal prime ideal contained in given prime ideal and containing a given subsetThe prime ideals of a quotient ringideals of quotient ringRadical Ideal in the Coordinate Ring is Intersection of Maximal IdealsNon Zero ideals of $mathbf{Z}_{12}$












2












$begingroup$


Given an ideal $I = langle x^3 - xrangle subseteq Bbb{R}[x]$, determine the ideals in the quotient ring $Bbb{R}[x]/I$.



I understand that the quotient ring is of the form $k[x_1...x_n]/I$ where I is an ideal in $k[x_1...x_n]$. I also understand that the ideals of the quotient ring are in one-to-one correspondence with the ideals of $k[x_1...x_n]$ containing $I$.



However, I'm really confused on how to actually go about finding the ideals of the quotient ring given a specific ideal. Any hints or suggestions would be appreciated, thank you.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Masha is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • $begingroup$
    You have just one indeterminate. There's a very useful description of all ideals of $mathbb{R}[x]$, because it is a principal ideal domain.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    6 hours ago
















2












$begingroup$


Given an ideal $I = langle x^3 - xrangle subseteq Bbb{R}[x]$, determine the ideals in the quotient ring $Bbb{R}[x]/I$.



I understand that the quotient ring is of the form $k[x_1...x_n]/I$ where I is an ideal in $k[x_1...x_n]$. I also understand that the ideals of the quotient ring are in one-to-one correspondence with the ideals of $k[x_1...x_n]$ containing $I$.



However, I'm really confused on how to actually go about finding the ideals of the quotient ring given a specific ideal. Any hints or suggestions would be appreciated, thank you.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Masha is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You have just one indeterminate. There's a very useful description of all ideals of $mathbb{R}[x]$, because it is a principal ideal domain.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    6 hours ago














2












2








2


2



$begingroup$


Given an ideal $I = langle x^3 - xrangle subseteq Bbb{R}[x]$, determine the ideals in the quotient ring $Bbb{R}[x]/I$.



I understand that the quotient ring is of the form $k[x_1...x_n]/I$ where I is an ideal in $k[x_1...x_n]$. I also understand that the ideals of the quotient ring are in one-to-one correspondence with the ideals of $k[x_1...x_n]$ containing $I$.



However, I'm really confused on how to actually go about finding the ideals of the quotient ring given a specific ideal. Any hints or suggestions would be appreciated, thank you.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Masha is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




Given an ideal $I = langle x^3 - xrangle subseteq Bbb{R}[x]$, determine the ideals in the quotient ring $Bbb{R}[x]/I$.



I understand that the quotient ring is of the form $k[x_1...x_n]/I$ where I is an ideal in $k[x_1...x_n]$. I also understand that the ideals of the quotient ring are in one-to-one correspondence with the ideals of $k[x_1...x_n]$ containing $I$.



However, I'm really confused on how to actually go about finding the ideals of the quotient ring given a specific ideal. Any hints or suggestions would be appreciated, thank you.







abstract-algebra polynomials ring-theory ideals quotient-spaces






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Masha is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Masha is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 2 hours ago









Servaes

31.1k342101




31.1k342101






New contributor




Masha is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked 6 hours ago









MashaMasha

313




313




New contributor




Masha is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





Masha is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Masha is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












  • $begingroup$
    You have just one indeterminate. There's a very useful description of all ideals of $mathbb{R}[x]$, because it is a principal ideal domain.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    6 hours ago


















  • $begingroup$
    You have just one indeterminate. There's a very useful description of all ideals of $mathbb{R}[x]$, because it is a principal ideal domain.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    6 hours ago
















$begingroup$
You have just one indeterminate. There's a very useful description of all ideals of $mathbb{R}[x]$, because it is a principal ideal domain.
$endgroup$
– egreg
6 hours ago




$begingroup$
You have just one indeterminate. There's a very useful description of all ideals of $mathbb{R}[x]$, because it is a principal ideal domain.
$endgroup$
– egreg
6 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

Because $Bbb{R}$ is a field, the polynomial ring $Bbb{R}[x]$ in one indeterminate is a principal ideal domain. That means every ideal is of the form $langle frangle$ for some $finBbb{R}[x]$. Now use the fact that
$$langle x^3-xranglesubsetlangle frangle
qquadiffqquad
x^3-xinlangle frangle
qquadiffqquad
ftext{ divides }x^3-x.$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    4












    $begingroup$

    Note that we can factor $x^3 - x = x(x^2 - 1) = x(x + 1)(x - 1)$. Now, by the Chinese Reimander theorem:



    $$mathbb R[X]/langle x^3 - xrangle = mathbb R[X] /langle x(x + 1)(x-1) rangle = mathbb R[X]/langle x rangle timesmathbb R[X]/langle x+1 rangle timesmathbb R[X]/langle x-1 rangle $$



    We know that:





    1. $mathbb R[X]/langle x rangle simeq mathbb R$, since quotienting by $x$ kills all polynomials of degree 1 or higher. What's left are the reals

    2. Similarly, $mathbb R[X]/langle x+1 rangle simeq mathbb R [X]/ langle x-1 rangle simeq mathbb R$.


    So, the ring that we have is actually $mathbb R times mathbb R times mathbb R$.



    Since $mathbb R$ is a field, it has only two idels: the zero ideal and the ring itself.



    Now, note that:




    1. the product of ideals is an ideal of the product ring

    2. Every ideal of the product ring is a product of ideals


    and we complete the proof, since the set of all ideals will all be:



    $$
    {0, mathbb R} times {0, mathbb R} times {0, mathbb R}
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 2




      $begingroup$
      This answer is not correct. $X^{2}-1$ factors as $(X-1)(X+1)$ over $mathbb{R}$. The Chinese Remainder Theorem therefore shows that $mathbb{R}[X]/langle X^{3}-X rangle cong mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R}$.
      $endgroup$
      – Alex Wertheim
      5 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      Oh my god, right, I confused $X^2 - 1$ and $X^2 + 1$. Fixing right now!
      $endgroup$
      – Siddharth Bhat
      5 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      @AlexWertheim I just fixed it. Could you please double-check to make sure I didn't miss anything?
      $endgroup$
      – Siddharth Bhat
      5 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      Looks mostly correct to me! (The factorization is $(X^{3}-X) = X(X^{2}-1)$, not $X(1-X^{2})$. But this is a minor point, which doesn't affect the computation of the quotient up to isomorphism.
      $endgroup$
      – Alex Wertheim
      5 hours ago












    • $begingroup$
      @AlexWertheim Argh, fixed! Thanks for catching that :)
      $endgroup$
      – Siddharth Bhat
      5 hours ago












    Your Answer








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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    4












    $begingroup$

    Because $Bbb{R}$ is a field, the polynomial ring $Bbb{R}[x]$ in one indeterminate is a principal ideal domain. That means every ideal is of the form $langle frangle$ for some $finBbb{R}[x]$. Now use the fact that
    $$langle x^3-xranglesubsetlangle frangle
    qquadiffqquad
    x^3-xinlangle frangle
    qquadiffqquad
    ftext{ divides }x^3-x.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      4












      $begingroup$

      Because $Bbb{R}$ is a field, the polynomial ring $Bbb{R}[x]$ in one indeterminate is a principal ideal domain. That means every ideal is of the form $langle frangle$ for some $finBbb{R}[x]$. Now use the fact that
      $$langle x^3-xranglesubsetlangle frangle
      qquadiffqquad
      x^3-xinlangle frangle
      qquadiffqquad
      ftext{ divides }x^3-x.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        4












        4








        4





        $begingroup$

        Because $Bbb{R}$ is a field, the polynomial ring $Bbb{R}[x]$ in one indeterminate is a principal ideal domain. That means every ideal is of the form $langle frangle$ for some $finBbb{R}[x]$. Now use the fact that
        $$langle x^3-xranglesubsetlangle frangle
        qquadiffqquad
        x^3-xinlangle frangle
        qquadiffqquad
        ftext{ divides }x^3-x.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Because $Bbb{R}$ is a field, the polynomial ring $Bbb{R}[x]$ in one indeterminate is a principal ideal domain. That means every ideal is of the form $langle frangle$ for some $finBbb{R}[x]$. Now use the fact that
        $$langle x^3-xranglesubsetlangle frangle
        qquadiffqquad
        x^3-xinlangle frangle
        qquadiffqquad
        ftext{ divides }x^3-x.$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 6 hours ago









        ServaesServaes

        31.1k342101




        31.1k342101























            4












            $begingroup$

            Note that we can factor $x^3 - x = x(x^2 - 1) = x(x + 1)(x - 1)$. Now, by the Chinese Reimander theorem:



            $$mathbb R[X]/langle x^3 - xrangle = mathbb R[X] /langle x(x + 1)(x-1) rangle = mathbb R[X]/langle x rangle timesmathbb R[X]/langle x+1 rangle timesmathbb R[X]/langle x-1 rangle $$



            We know that:





            1. $mathbb R[X]/langle x rangle simeq mathbb R$, since quotienting by $x$ kills all polynomials of degree 1 or higher. What's left are the reals

            2. Similarly, $mathbb R[X]/langle x+1 rangle simeq mathbb R [X]/ langle x-1 rangle simeq mathbb R$.


            So, the ring that we have is actually $mathbb R times mathbb R times mathbb R$.



            Since $mathbb R$ is a field, it has only two idels: the zero ideal and the ring itself.



            Now, note that:




            1. the product of ideals is an ideal of the product ring

            2. Every ideal of the product ring is a product of ideals


            and we complete the proof, since the set of all ideals will all be:



            $$
            {0, mathbb R} times {0, mathbb R} times {0, mathbb R}
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              This answer is not correct. $X^{2}-1$ factors as $(X-1)(X+1)$ over $mathbb{R}$. The Chinese Remainder Theorem therefore shows that $mathbb{R}[X]/langle X^{3}-X rangle cong mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R}$.
              $endgroup$
              – Alex Wertheim
              5 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              Oh my god, right, I confused $X^2 - 1$ and $X^2 + 1$. Fixing right now!
              $endgroup$
              – Siddharth Bhat
              5 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @AlexWertheim I just fixed it. Could you please double-check to make sure I didn't miss anything?
              $endgroup$
              – Siddharth Bhat
              5 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              Looks mostly correct to me! (The factorization is $(X^{3}-X) = X(X^{2}-1)$, not $X(1-X^{2})$. But this is a minor point, which doesn't affect the computation of the quotient up to isomorphism.
              $endgroup$
              – Alex Wertheim
              5 hours ago












            • $begingroup$
              @AlexWertheim Argh, fixed! Thanks for catching that :)
              $endgroup$
              – Siddharth Bhat
              5 hours ago
















            4












            $begingroup$

            Note that we can factor $x^3 - x = x(x^2 - 1) = x(x + 1)(x - 1)$. Now, by the Chinese Reimander theorem:



            $$mathbb R[X]/langle x^3 - xrangle = mathbb R[X] /langle x(x + 1)(x-1) rangle = mathbb R[X]/langle x rangle timesmathbb R[X]/langle x+1 rangle timesmathbb R[X]/langle x-1 rangle $$



            We know that:





            1. $mathbb R[X]/langle x rangle simeq mathbb R$, since quotienting by $x$ kills all polynomials of degree 1 or higher. What's left are the reals

            2. Similarly, $mathbb R[X]/langle x+1 rangle simeq mathbb R [X]/ langle x-1 rangle simeq mathbb R$.


            So, the ring that we have is actually $mathbb R times mathbb R times mathbb R$.



            Since $mathbb R$ is a field, it has only two idels: the zero ideal and the ring itself.



            Now, note that:




            1. the product of ideals is an ideal of the product ring

            2. Every ideal of the product ring is a product of ideals


            and we complete the proof, since the set of all ideals will all be:



            $$
            {0, mathbb R} times {0, mathbb R} times {0, mathbb R}
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              This answer is not correct. $X^{2}-1$ factors as $(X-1)(X+1)$ over $mathbb{R}$. The Chinese Remainder Theorem therefore shows that $mathbb{R}[X]/langle X^{3}-X rangle cong mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R}$.
              $endgroup$
              – Alex Wertheim
              5 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              Oh my god, right, I confused $X^2 - 1$ and $X^2 + 1$. Fixing right now!
              $endgroup$
              – Siddharth Bhat
              5 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @AlexWertheim I just fixed it. Could you please double-check to make sure I didn't miss anything?
              $endgroup$
              – Siddharth Bhat
              5 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              Looks mostly correct to me! (The factorization is $(X^{3}-X) = X(X^{2}-1)$, not $X(1-X^{2})$. But this is a minor point, which doesn't affect the computation of the quotient up to isomorphism.
              $endgroup$
              – Alex Wertheim
              5 hours ago












            • $begingroup$
              @AlexWertheim Argh, fixed! Thanks for catching that :)
              $endgroup$
              – Siddharth Bhat
              5 hours ago














            4












            4








            4





            $begingroup$

            Note that we can factor $x^3 - x = x(x^2 - 1) = x(x + 1)(x - 1)$. Now, by the Chinese Reimander theorem:



            $$mathbb R[X]/langle x^3 - xrangle = mathbb R[X] /langle x(x + 1)(x-1) rangle = mathbb R[X]/langle x rangle timesmathbb R[X]/langle x+1 rangle timesmathbb R[X]/langle x-1 rangle $$



            We know that:





            1. $mathbb R[X]/langle x rangle simeq mathbb R$, since quotienting by $x$ kills all polynomials of degree 1 or higher. What's left are the reals

            2. Similarly, $mathbb R[X]/langle x+1 rangle simeq mathbb R [X]/ langle x-1 rangle simeq mathbb R$.


            So, the ring that we have is actually $mathbb R times mathbb R times mathbb R$.



            Since $mathbb R$ is a field, it has only two idels: the zero ideal and the ring itself.



            Now, note that:




            1. the product of ideals is an ideal of the product ring

            2. Every ideal of the product ring is a product of ideals


            and we complete the proof, since the set of all ideals will all be:



            $$
            {0, mathbb R} times {0, mathbb R} times {0, mathbb R}
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Note that we can factor $x^3 - x = x(x^2 - 1) = x(x + 1)(x - 1)$. Now, by the Chinese Reimander theorem:



            $$mathbb R[X]/langle x^3 - xrangle = mathbb R[X] /langle x(x + 1)(x-1) rangle = mathbb R[X]/langle x rangle timesmathbb R[X]/langle x+1 rangle timesmathbb R[X]/langle x-1 rangle $$



            We know that:





            1. $mathbb R[X]/langle x rangle simeq mathbb R$, since quotienting by $x$ kills all polynomials of degree 1 or higher. What's left are the reals

            2. Similarly, $mathbb R[X]/langle x+1 rangle simeq mathbb R [X]/ langle x-1 rangle simeq mathbb R$.


            So, the ring that we have is actually $mathbb R times mathbb R times mathbb R$.



            Since $mathbb R$ is a field, it has only two idels: the zero ideal and the ring itself.



            Now, note that:




            1. the product of ideals is an ideal of the product ring

            2. Every ideal of the product ring is a product of ideals


            and we complete the proof, since the set of all ideals will all be:



            $$
            {0, mathbb R} times {0, mathbb R} times {0, mathbb R}
            $$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited 5 hours ago

























            answered 6 hours ago









            Siddharth BhatSiddharth Bhat

            3,3471918




            3,3471918








            • 2




              $begingroup$
              This answer is not correct. $X^{2}-1$ factors as $(X-1)(X+1)$ over $mathbb{R}$. The Chinese Remainder Theorem therefore shows that $mathbb{R}[X]/langle X^{3}-X rangle cong mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R}$.
              $endgroup$
              – Alex Wertheim
              5 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              Oh my god, right, I confused $X^2 - 1$ and $X^2 + 1$. Fixing right now!
              $endgroup$
              – Siddharth Bhat
              5 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @AlexWertheim I just fixed it. Could you please double-check to make sure I didn't miss anything?
              $endgroup$
              – Siddharth Bhat
              5 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              Looks mostly correct to me! (The factorization is $(X^{3}-X) = X(X^{2}-1)$, not $X(1-X^{2})$. But this is a minor point, which doesn't affect the computation of the quotient up to isomorphism.
              $endgroup$
              – Alex Wertheim
              5 hours ago












            • $begingroup$
              @AlexWertheim Argh, fixed! Thanks for catching that :)
              $endgroup$
              – Siddharth Bhat
              5 hours ago














            • 2




              $begingroup$
              This answer is not correct. $X^{2}-1$ factors as $(X-1)(X+1)$ over $mathbb{R}$. The Chinese Remainder Theorem therefore shows that $mathbb{R}[X]/langle X^{3}-X rangle cong mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R}$.
              $endgroup$
              – Alex Wertheim
              5 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              Oh my god, right, I confused $X^2 - 1$ and $X^2 + 1$. Fixing right now!
              $endgroup$
              – Siddharth Bhat
              5 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @AlexWertheim I just fixed it. Could you please double-check to make sure I didn't miss anything?
              $endgroup$
              – Siddharth Bhat
              5 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              Looks mostly correct to me! (The factorization is $(X^{3}-X) = X(X^{2}-1)$, not $X(1-X^{2})$. But this is a minor point, which doesn't affect the computation of the quotient up to isomorphism.
              $endgroup$
              – Alex Wertheim
              5 hours ago












            • $begingroup$
              @AlexWertheim Argh, fixed! Thanks for catching that :)
              $endgroup$
              – Siddharth Bhat
              5 hours ago








            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            This answer is not correct. $X^{2}-1$ factors as $(X-1)(X+1)$ over $mathbb{R}$. The Chinese Remainder Theorem therefore shows that $mathbb{R}[X]/langle X^{3}-X rangle cong mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R}$.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex Wertheim
            5 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            This answer is not correct. $X^{2}-1$ factors as $(X-1)(X+1)$ over $mathbb{R}$. The Chinese Remainder Theorem therefore shows that $mathbb{R}[X]/langle X^{3}-X rangle cong mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R} oplus mathbb{R}$.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex Wertheim
            5 hours ago












            $begingroup$
            Oh my god, right, I confused $X^2 - 1$ and $X^2 + 1$. Fixing right now!
            $endgroup$
            – Siddharth Bhat
            5 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            Oh my god, right, I confused $X^2 - 1$ and $X^2 + 1$. Fixing right now!
            $endgroup$
            – Siddharth Bhat
            5 hours ago












            $begingroup$
            @AlexWertheim I just fixed it. Could you please double-check to make sure I didn't miss anything?
            $endgroup$
            – Siddharth Bhat
            5 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            @AlexWertheim I just fixed it. Could you please double-check to make sure I didn't miss anything?
            $endgroup$
            – Siddharth Bhat
            5 hours ago












            $begingroup$
            Looks mostly correct to me! (The factorization is $(X^{3}-X) = X(X^{2}-1)$, not $X(1-X^{2})$. But this is a minor point, which doesn't affect the computation of the quotient up to isomorphism.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex Wertheim
            5 hours ago






            $begingroup$
            Looks mostly correct to me! (The factorization is $(X^{3}-X) = X(X^{2}-1)$, not $X(1-X^{2})$. But this is a minor point, which doesn't affect the computation of the quotient up to isomorphism.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex Wertheim
            5 hours ago














            $begingroup$
            @AlexWertheim Argh, fixed! Thanks for catching that :)
            $endgroup$
            – Siddharth Bhat
            5 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            @AlexWertheim Argh, fixed! Thanks for catching that :)
            $endgroup$
            – Siddharth Bhat
            5 hours ago










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